Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Exam Number/Code : 642-383
Exam Name : Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Questions and Answers : 69 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-383 Price: $ 63.00

4. What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Answer: AC

5. Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Answer: A

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Unified Communications Architecture and Design
Exam Number/Code : 642-415
Exam Name : Unified Communications Architecture and Design
Questions and Answers : 58 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-415 Price: $ 78.00

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3. What are two conferencing guidelines for a single-site deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Use hardware conferencing only for small deployments
B. If available, configure DSPs for flex-mode when there are multiple codec types in use.
C. Group any conferencing resources into MRGLs based on their location, to manage Call Admission Control.
D. Make certain that Meet-Me and Ad-Hoc conference resources each account for a minimum of 5% of the user base.
Answer: BD

4. What information is relevant to choosing an IP telephony centralized call processing model?
A. multiple PRIs to the PSTN
B. a campus of six buildings connected via an ATM backbone
C. three small regional sales offices located in the three Western time zones
D. centralized order processing, shipping, and billing for all customer products
E. connectivity to a single service provider that hosts the company web site and provides for Internet access
F. a single six-story building with an IDF on each floor and an MDF in the computer room on the second floor
Answer: C

5. Ajax wants to ensure that their employees are safe and that they comply with the law. What are four general E911 responsibilities of an enterprise telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. Enable PSAP call-back.
B. Initiate the update of ALI records.
C. Provide a detailed map of all ERLs.
D. Allow conferencing with internal security personnel.
E. Route calls to the appropriate point (on-net or off-net).
F. Deliver appropriate calling party number digits to LEC.
Answer: ABEF

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Troubleshooting Unified Communications (TUC)
Exam Number/Code : 642-426
Exam Name : Troubleshooting Unified Communications (TUC)
Questions and Answers : 48 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-426 Price: $ 63.00

1. Your company has a centralized IP Telephony system and branch offices in eight major cities. The manager of your company help desk recently published local access numbers for external customers to reduce the costs associated with your company’s toll-free 800 service. However, when customers call the new local numbers they hear a reorder tone instead of your centralized IVR.
What is the best solution to this issue?
A. Deploy transcoders at each remote location.
B. Deploy transcoders at the central location.
C. Deploy Cisco Unified IP IVRs at each remote location.
D. Increase the number of ports in the centralized IVR.
Answer: B

2. Which three capabilities cannot be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. disable DID
B. invoke a Tcl application
C. enable dtmf-relay
D. disable VAD
E. set codec to G.711
F. set preference to 1
Answer: BCD

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Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE)
Exam Number/Code : 642-436
Exam Name : Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE)
Questions and Answers : 77 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-436 Price: $ 78.00

2. Refer to the exhibit. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are the digits manipulated in R1 so that they are presented correctly at R2?
A. The outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
B. The digits 404-555 are stripped off before matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
C. The digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and R2 receives only 1200.
D. R1 collects the 1200 and prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.
Answer: A

3. Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design
Answer: B

4. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the PBXs today.
Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?
A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Answer: C

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Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1
Exam Number/Code : 642-446
Exam Name : Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1
Questions and Answers : 62 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-446 Price: $ 78.00

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4. Which two can be targets of a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. gateway
B. gatekeeper
C. route group
D. route list
E. translation pattern
F. CTI Port
Answer: AD

5. An IP phone user has dialed “15152421234″. Which route pattern will be used?
A. 1515[^0-1]4[123]+
B. 1515[^0-2]4[01234]
C. 1515[^0-1]42[1234]
D. 1515[^0-1]421[1-4]+
Answer: D

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Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)
Exam Number/Code : 642-456
Exam Name : Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)
Questions and Answers : 59 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-456 Price: $ 78.00

4. Refer to the exhibit. Horst’s Helicopters has a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, with SRST implemented on MGCP gateways at the remotes sites. The WAN link to Seattle has failed. All phones in Seattle have registered to the SRST gateway and can call each other internally, but all outside calls fail.
Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is the most likely solution to the problem?
A. Configure MCGP fallback on the gateway.
B. Add the isdn outgoing-voice command to the configuration.
C. Call the phone provider and report that the PRI link is down.
D. Enable the outgoing POTS dial peer with the no shutdown command.
Answer: A

5. The Acme Corporation is experiencing poor, choppy audio quality on voice calls placed across their WAN link to and from Madison. What can be done to the Location parameter for Madison to help alleviate this problem?
A. Increase the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
B. Nothing, the audio bandwidth Location parameter for Madison is not related to the problem.
C. Remove the audio bandwidth parameter in the Location configuration window for Madison.
D. Decrease the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
Answer: D

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Cisco Rich Media Communications(CRMC)
Exam Number/Code : 642-481
Exam Name : Cisco Rich Media Communications(CRMC)
Questions and Answers : 95 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-481 Price: $ 63.00

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2. A customer wants to simultaneously support H.323 conferences with an aggregate of 20 active participants, and SCCP videoconferences with an aggregate of 30 active participants. All video sessions will use voice-activated switching. Which device should be deployed to support this?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E
C. Cisco IPVC 3540-03A with EMP
D. Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module
E. Cisco IPVC 3540-10A with EMP
Answer: E

3. Bob’s Bicycles recently implemented a H.323 videoconferencing solution, and wishes to conduct videoconferences with the main supplier over the extranet using the existing four-digit numbering plan at each company. Due to overlapping dial plans, the called digits must be manipulated to allow the video calls to be completed. Which solution can support this?
A. H.323 proxy
B. gatekeeper
C. directory gatekeeper
D. IP-to-IP gateway
Answer: D

4. Which two statements accurately describe the EMP? (Choose two.)
A. It increases the number of voice-activated sessions that are supported.
B. It increases the number of continuous presence layouts.
C. It increases the number of audio-only conference sessions that are supported.
D. It allows the MCU to perform rate matching.
E. It is required for simultaneous support for H.323 and SCCP continuous presence sessions.
Answer: BE

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Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches
Exam Number/Code : 642-504
Exam Name : Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches
Questions and Answers : 62 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-504 Price: $ 78.00

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2. Refer to the exhibit.
Which optional AAA or RADIUS configuration command is used to support 802.1X guest VLAN functionality?
A. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
B. aaa authorization network default group radius
C. aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius
E. radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813
Answer: B

3. Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching
B. uRPF
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr
E. BPDU protection
F. role-based access control
Answer: CD

4. What are the two category types associated with 5.x signature use in Cisco IOS IPS? (Choose two.)
A. basic
B. advanced
C. 128MB.sdf
D. 256MB.sdf
E. attack-drop
F. built-in
Answer: AB

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Securing Networks with ASA Foundation
Exam Number/Code : 642-524
Exam Name : Securing Networks with ASA Foundation
Questions and Answers : 62 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-03-15
642-524 Price: $ 78.00

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3. Which two statements accurately describe the downloadable ACL feature of the security appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Downloadable ACLs are the only supported authorization method that works without authentication.
B. Downloadable ACLs enable you to store full ACLs on a AAA server and download them to the security appliance.
C. Downloadable ACLs are supported using TACACS+ or RADIUS.
D. The downloadable ACL must be attached to a user or group profile on a AAA server.
E. The security appliance supports only per-user ACL authorization.
F. Downloadable ACLs cannot be manually removed; they must expire based on the configured timeout.
Answer: BD

4. To require users to authenticate before accessing the corporate DMZ servers, the network security administrator needs to configure cut-through proxy authentication via RADIUS. Which three tasks are required to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
A. Specify a AAA server group.
B. Designate an authentication server.
C. Add users to the local user database.
D. Configure per-user override.
E. Configure a rule that specifies which traffic flow to authenticate.
F. Assign ACLs to users or groups.
Answer: ABE

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Exam Number/Code : 642-533
Exam Name : Implementing Cisco Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Questions and Answers : 136 Q&As
642-533 Update Time: 2010-03-13
642-533 Price: $ 63.00

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3. A user with which user account role on a Cisco IPS Sensor can log into the native operating system shell for advanced troubleshooting purposes when directed to do so by Cisco TAC?
A. administrator
B. operator
C. viewer
D. service
E. root
F. super
Answer: D

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe the configuration depicted in this Cisco IDM virtual sensors list? (Choose three.)
A. inline dropping of packets can occur on the Gig0/0.1 sub-interface
B. sub-interfaces Gig0/2.0 and Gig0/3.0 are operating in IPS mode
C. the Cisco IPS Sensor appliance is configured for promiscuous (IDS) and inline (IPS) mode simultaneously
D. the vs1 virtual sensor is misconfigured for inline operations since only one sub-interface is assigned to vs1
E. inline dropping of packets can occur on the Gig0/2.0 sub-interface or Gig0/3.0 sub-interface or both
F. the vs1 virtual sensor is operating inline between VLAN 102 and VLAN 201
Answer: ACF

5. What are the three roles of the Cisco IPS Sensor interface? (Choose three.)
A. alternate TCP reset
B. blocking
C. command and control
D. sensing (monitoring)
E. logging
F. bypass
Answer: ACD

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